FREE NBME Free 120 (2026)·Complete Breakdown·119 Questions·Authenticated Against Official Answer Key·No Paywall
NBME Free 120 · 2026 Edition

The Complete Free 120 Master Guide.

Not another answer key. Every wrong answer dissected by mechanism. Every NBME trap named. Every question's costume change. Every variable pivot. Built the way the NBME actually thinks.

119 questions 500+ distractor autopsies Authenticated and fact-checked 6 corrections noted
119
Questions
6
Blocks
468+
Distractors Dissected
8
Named Trap Types
Why This Is Different

Six layers no other Free 120 guide has.

Most guides give you the answer and a one-line explanation. That doesn't teach you anything. This is built for transfer, so when the same concept reappears in a different vignette, you still get the point.

🔬

Distractor Autopsies

Every wrong answer gets a full mechanism breakdown. What disease it actually describes, what that vignette would look like, the one clue that rules it out here.

NBME Trap Fingerprints

Named trap categories like Prevalence Swap, Adjacent Disease, and Mechanism Reversal. They teach you to recognize NBME's technique, not just the content.

Costume Changes

How this exact concept reappears on real Step 1 in a different vignette, demographic, or clinical setting.

Variable Pivots

"If X changes to Y, the answer becomes Z." Learn which variable in the vignette is load-bearing. The exact skill Step 1 tests.

📋

Day Before Sheet

119 single-sentence pivots for the 24 hours before exam. Pure discriminator recall, zero fluff. Print and trust.

Verified and Fact-Checked

Six errors in the original guide were identified and corrected against the official USMLE answer key and current medical literature. All six are disclosed in the About section.

Showing all 119 questions
Q001 Block 1 Answer: B
HematologyCoagulation

PE after long flight in young woman

Q002 Block 1 Answer: A
RheumatologyMusculoskeletal

Hand deformities in middle-aged woman

Q003 Block 1 Answer: B
NeurologyBrainstem Anatomy

Medial pontine syndrome (Millard-Gubler/Foville)

Q004 Block 1 Answer: C
Infectious DiseaseHIV

Pharyngitis with pancytopenia, heterophile-negative

Q005 Block 1 Answer: C
NephrologyDrug-Induced AKI

AKI on oxacillin with rash + eosinophils

Q006 Block 1 Answer: D
NeurologySpinal Cord

Cervical syrinx + headache → Chiari

Q007 Block 1 Answer: E
CardiologyVascular Medicine

Intermittent claudication in diabetic

Q008 Block 1 Answer: A
Behavioral ScienceCommunication

Smoking cessation counseling

Q009 Block 1 Answer: B
PediatricsNutrition

Failure-to-thrive toddler on excess formula

Q010 Block 1 Answer: A
BiostatisticsResearch Methods

Adding yogurt to a food-frequency questionnaire

Q011 Block 1 Answer: D
Infectious DiseaseParasitology

Chagas screening positive

Q012 Block 1 Answer: A
Behavioral SciencePatient Communication

Patient refusing meds with herbal tea

Q013 Block 1 Answer: B
UrologyPharmacology

BPH pharmacotherapy

Q014 Block 1 Answer: A
PsychiatryDiagnostic Classification

Acute mania with psychotic features

Q015 Block 1 Answer: B
GIPharmacology

Cimetidine vs omeprazole on gastric pH

Q016 Block 1 Answer: B
AnatomyOncologyVenous Drainage

Lung mets from colon cancer

Q017 Block 1 Answer: E
DermatologyInfectious Disease

Itchy serpiginous burrows in webspaces

Q018 Block 1 Answer: E
GIHematologyGallstone Pathophysiology

Pigment gallstones in sickle cell

Q019 Block 1 Answer: D
EndocrinologyMedical Genetics

MEN2A. Medullary thyroid carcinoma

Q020 Block 1 Answer: A
EndocrinologyPediatrics

Precocious puberty

Q021 Block 2 Answer: E
EndocrinologyGenetics

Klinefelter syndrome

Q022 Block 2 Answer: B
EndocrinologyNeonatology

Classic salt-wasting CAH (21-hydroxylase deficiency)

Q023 Block 2 Answer: C
NephrologyUremia

Indications for emergent dialysis

Q024 Block 2 Answer: C
CardiologyCardiac Physiology

Acute MI on PV loop

Q025 Block 2 Answer: C
NeurologyPharmacology

Parkinson adjunct. MAO-B inhibitor

Q026 Block 2 Answer: E
AnatomySurgery

Penetrating trauma at left 10th ICS

Q027 Block 2 Answer: B
PsychiatryNeurologyToxicology

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Q028 Block 2 Answer: E
OncologyUrology

Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma

Q029 Block 2 Answer: A
DermatologyInternal Medicine

Rosacea

Q030 Block 2 Answer: B
EpidemiologyPublic Health

Unvaccinated child who stays healthy

Q031 Block 2 Answer: A
ObstetricsImmunology

Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

Q032 Block 2 Answer: D
RheumatologyBiochemistry

Gout. Purine degradation

Q033 Block 2 Answer: A
Behavioral ScienceAlcohol Use

Motivational interviewing. Open-ended question

Q034 Block 2 Answer: C
EmbryologyLymphatics

Lymphatic development. Mesoderm

Q035 Block 2 Answer: B
PulmonologyPhysiology

Obesity hypoventilation/OSA. Chronic hypoxemia

Q036 Block 2 Answer: B
Infectious DiseasePediatrics

Hemolytic uremic syndrome. EHEC

Q037 Block 2 Answer: C
CardiologyPathology

Hypertensive LV hypertrophy

Q038 Block 2 Answer: B
BiochemistryPharmacologyToxicology

Carcinogen metabolic activation. CYP450

Q039 Block 2 Answer: B
PharmacologyDrug Development

Phase 1 clinical trial

Q040 Block 2 Answer: A
EndocrinologyBiochemistry

Hypoglycemia unresponsive to glucagon

Q041 Block 3 Answer: B
GIOncology

Breaking bad news. Likely pancreatic cancer

Q042 Block 3 Answer: B
HematologyMyeloproliferative Neoplasms

Polycythemia vera

Q043 Block 3 Answer: E
NeurologyTemporal Lobe Anatomy

Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy

Q044 Block 3 Answer: A
Infectious DiseaseDermatologyEating Disorders

Bulimia-associated sialadenosis (pilocarpine for symptom relief)

Q045 Block 3 Answer: D
ImmunologyDermatology

Poison ivy contact dermatitis

Q046 Block 3 Answer: E
CardiologyPulmonologyHigh-Altitude Physiology

High-altitude acclimatization → cor pulmonale

Q047 Block 3 Answer: A
CardiologyPediatrics

Coarctation of the aorta

Q048 Block 3 Answer: A
PulmonologyEndocrinologyCalcium Physiology

Sarcoidosis hypercalcemia

Q049 Block 3 Answer: C
GIGastroenterology

Chronic pancreatitis. Exocrine insufficiency

Q050 Block 3 Answer: C
Infectious DiseaseParasitology

Amebic liver abscess. Luminal agent

Q051 Block 3 Answer: D
OncologyPediatrics

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Q052 Block 3 Answer: E
Infectious DiseaseMicrobiology

Necrotizing soft-tissue infection. Group A Strep / S. Aureus

Q053 Block 3 Answer: C
NeurologySpinal Cord Anatomy

Central cord syndrome

Q054 Block 3 Answer: D
PulmonologyPulmonary Function Tests

Obesity hypoventilation. Restrictive extrapulmonary pattern

Q055 Block 3 Answer: C
OBGYNMenopause Physiology

Postmenopausal vaginal atrophy

Q056 Block 3 Answer: E
EndocrinologyCommunication

Patient interviewing. Open-ended question

Q057 Block 3 Answer: D
BiostatisticsResearch Methods

Increasing sample size

Q058 Block 3 Answer: D
UrologyAnatomyRadiology

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

Q059 Block 3 Answer: E
ImmunologyInfectious Disease

Mendelian susceptibility to mycobacterial disease

Q060 Block 3 Answer: G
PathologyOncologyWound Healing

Keloid scar (myofibroblast-driven dermal fibroproliferation)

Q061 Block 4 Answer: C
PharmacologyObstetricsTeratology

ACE inhibitor fetopathy

Q062 Block 4 Answer: C
PulmonologyCardiologyPathology

Acute pulmonary edema from cardiogenic shock

Q063 Block 4 Answer: E
PharmacologyDrug Interactions

Rifampin-warfarin interaction

Q064 Block 4 Answer: A
OphthalmologyEpidemiology

Age-related macular degeneration

Q065 Block 4 Answer: E
HematologyOncologyImmunology

Chemo-induced neutropenia

Q066 Block 4 Answer: A
BiostatisticsClinical Epidemiology

Absolute risk reduction

Q067 Block 4 Answer: B
HematologyOncology

Acute myelogenous leukemia (Auer rods)

Q068 Block 4 Answer: D
LipidologyCardiologyGenetics

Familial hypercholesterolemia

Q069 Block 4 Answer: C
PediatricsUrology

Primary nocturnal enuresis

Q070 Block 4 Answer: A
PediatricsSurgeryGI

Rectal prolapse from chronic constipation

Q071 Block 4 Answer: D
GeneticsProbability

CF carrier risk in unaffected sibling

Q072 Block 4 Answer: A
CardiologyPharmacology

Cardiogenic shock. Anterior STEMI

Q073 Block 4 Answer: D
EmbryologyUrology

Horseshoe kidney

Q074 Block 4 Answer: C
Behavioral ScienceAdolescent Medicine

Adolescent confidentiality / open-ended response

Q075 Block 4 Answer: D
EndocrinologyObesity Physiology

Obesity → hyperinsulinemia

Q076 Block 4 Answer: D
EndocrinologyMuscle Physiology

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis

Q077 Block 4 Answer: F
EndocrinologyNephrologyWater Physiology

Central diabetes insipidus

Q078 Block 4 Answer: B
UrologyOncologyPathology

Seminoma

Q079 Block 4 Answer: D
PediatricsTeratologyEmbryology

Fetal alcohol syndrome

Q080 Block 4 Answer: D
EndocrinologyThyroidPostpartum Physiology

Postpartum thyroiditis

Q081 Block 5 Answer: D
BiostatisticsDiagnostic Testing

Screening test false positives

Q082 Block 5 Answer: E
NeurologyCortical Localization

Right parietal lesion with extinction

Q083 Block 5 Answer: E
ImmunologyPediatricsGenetics

DiGeorge syndrome

Q084 Block 5 Answer: E
CardiologyElectrophysiology

Typical atrial flutter (cavotricuspid isthmus reentry)

Q085 Block 5 Answer: D
GIPharmacologyGastric Physiology

NSAID-induced gastric ulcer

Q086 Block 5 Answer: A
TeratologyEmbryology

Clubfoot from oligohydramnios

Q087 Block 5 Answer: B
PulmonologyEmergency Medicine

Tension pneumothorax

Q088 Block 5 Answer: D
HematologyReticulocytes

Reticulocytosis after acute blood loss

Q089 Block 5 Answer: B
NutritionGastroenterology

Steatorrhea → vitamin A deficiency

Q090 Block 5 Answer: C
NephrologySickle CellRenal Medulla Physiology

Sickle cell papillary necrosis

Q091 Block 5 Answer: C
ImmunologyBiochemistryInflammation

Acute appendicitis. Neutrophilic infiltrate

Q092 Block 5 Answer: B
PsychiatryDiagnostic Classification

Brief psychotic disorder

Q093 Block 5 Answer: B
Infectious DiseaseNeurologyMeningitis

Viral (aseptic) meningitis

Q094 Block 5 Answer: B
PulmonologyNeuromuscular Physiology

Neuromuscular respiratory weakness

Q095 Block 5 Answer: C
GYNPharmacologyProstaglandin Physiology

Primary dysmenorrhea. NSAIDs

Q096 Block 5 Answer: D
NephrologyADH Physiology

Exercise/heat-induced volume depletion

Q097 Block 5 Answer: D
Infectious DiseaseMicrobiologyVirology

Mumps parotitis

Q098 Block 5 Answer: D
OncologyImmunologyCheckpoint Inhibitors

CTLA-4 checkpoint blockade in melanoma

Q099 Block 5 Answer: D
Behavioral ScienceMedical EthicsCommunication

Professional medical interpreter

Q100 Block 5 Answer: C
Infectious DiseasePharmacology

Pertussis. Macrolide therapy

Q101 Block 6 Answer: F
NeurosciencePharmacologySympathomimetics

Amphetamine sympathomimetic mechanism

Q102 Block 6 Answer: E
CardiologyGeneticsConnective Tissue

Marfan with acute aortic dissection and AR

Q103 Block 6 Answer: E
NeurologyNeuromuscularParaneoplastic

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

Q104 Block 6 Answer: C
EndocrinologyCalciumGenetics

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

Q105 Block 6 Answer: C
Palliative CareMedical Ethics

Goals-of-care conversation

Q106 Block 6 Answer: C
EndocrinologyGeneticsEmbryology

46,XX virilized newborn

Q107 Block 6 Answer: D
DermatologyPharmacologyAntifungals

Tinea pedis treatment

Q108 Block 6 Answer: B
NeurologyBrainstemEye Movements

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

Q109 Block 6 Answer: A
OphthalmologyCardiologyHypertension

Hypertensive retinopathy

Q110 Block 6 Answer: D
GINeonatologyBile Physiology

Neonatal conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Q111 Block 6 Answer: B
NephrologyRadiologyHypertension

Renovascular HTN in a young woman

Q112 Block 6 Answer: D
BiostatisticsNormal Distribution

Normal distribution. 50th percentile

Q113 Block 6 Answer: C
HematologyCoagulation

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Q114 Block 6 Answer: C
GeneticsPopulation Genetics

Founder effect in Iceland

Q115 Block 6 Answer: B
CardiologyOncology

Cardiac myxoma

Q116 Block 6 Answer: D
ImmunologyTransplant Medicine

Hyperacute renal transplant rejection

Q117 Block 6 Answer: A
PharmacologyBone metabolism

Atypical femoral fracture on bisphosphonate

Q118 Block 6 Answer: C
OrthopedicsAnatomyTrauma

Lateral ankle sprain

Q119 Block 6 Answer: E
PulmonologyPediatricsRespiratory Physiology

Foreign body aspiration → V/Q mismatch

Day Before Protocol

119 pivots. One sentence each.

The discriminator that wins the point. Read through once. Then close the laptop. Sleep at 10pm. Trust the system.

Q001(B)Young woman with unprovoked DVT/PE. Think inherited thrombophilia. Factor V Leiden is the most common.
Q002(A)Symmetric small-joint arthritis with morning stiffness in a middle-aged woman = rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-CCP is the most specific serology (\>95%).
Q003(B)Failure of left eye abduction (not adduction) plus right hemiparesis equals left medial pontine syndrome. This is CN VI (abducens) palsy, not internuclear ophthalmoplegia. INO i...
Q004(C)Mononucleosis-like illness + pancytopenia + heterophile-negative = acute HIV seroconversion.
Q005(C)Drug + rash + eosinophils + WBC casts = AIN. Penicillins (esp. Methicillin/oxacillin) are textbook offenders.
Q006(D)Acquired syringomyelia in young adults is most often post-traumatic; congenital is from Chiari I. The headache (occipital, valsalva) plus syrinx points to Chiari, but the questi...
Q007(E)Classic intermittent claudication in an atherosclerotic patient = atherosclerosis of lower-extremity arteries.
Q008(A)Motivational interviewing for a precontemplation/contemplation patient: elicit the patient's own reasons for change (autonomy support), do not lecture or shame.
Q009(B)Drop in weight with preserved length = inadequate caloric intake. At 18 months she should be on whole milk + a varied table-food diet; formula alone is too low calorie/volume fo...
Q010(A)Missing a major calcium source = systematic measurement error (misclassification of exposure). Fixing it improves accuracy of the exposure measure, i.e., internal validity.
Q011(D)Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by the reduviid ("kissing") bug, which defecates near the bite; the parasite enters when the host rubs feces into the wound.
Q012(A)Unclear agenda. The patient keeps coming back yet refuses standard therapy. Use an open-ended question to clarify his expectations and values without judgment.
Q013(B)First-line symptomatic BPH therapy = α1-adrenergic antagonist (tamsulosin, terazosin).
Q014(A)Distractibility, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, pressured speech, and goal- directed behavior = manic episode. Psychotic features (delusions, hallucinations) are mood-co...
Q015(B)PPIs (omeprazole) irreversibly inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase. The final step. Producing the most profound and sustained pH rise. H2 blockers (cimetidine) only block histamine-driven ...
Q016(B)Colon → portal vein → liver (first). Once liver mets are established, tumor cells embolize from hepatic veins → IVC → right heart → lungs.
Q017(E)Burrows in interdigital webs + intense itch (worse at night) = Sarcoptes scabiei.
Q018(E)Sickle cell = chronic hemolysis → excess unconjugated bilirubin secreted in bile → calcium bilirubinate (pigment) stones.
Q019(D)MEN2A = MTC + pheochromocytoma + parathyroid hyperplasia, caused by activating germline mutation of the RET proto-oncogene.
Q020(A)Both LH and FSH are elevated. The pituitary is driving this. Elevated gonadotropins in a prepubertal girl = central (gonadotropin-dependent) precocious puberty = premature activ...
Q021(E)Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (FSH 45, LH 34, T 45) + tall stature + gynecomastia = 47,XXY.
Q022(B)Salt-wasting crisis + virilized genitalia = 21-hydroxylase deficiency → no aldosterone, no cortisol.
Q023(C)Pericardial friction rub = uremic pericarditis = absolute indication for urgent dialysis.
Q024(C)Acute ischemia drops contractility → ESPVR shifts down/right → larger end-systolic volume, smaller stroke volume.
Q025(C)"Freezing"/wearing-off on L-DOPA → add selegiline/rasagiline (MAO-B inhibitor) to prolong dopamine action.
Q026(E)Left posterior 9th-11th ribs overlie the spleen.
Q027(B)Antipsychotic + hyperthermia + autonomic dysregulation = NMS → "lead-pipe" rigidity.
Q028(E)Naphthylamine + smoking + renal pelvis = urothelial carcinoma.
Q029(A)Central facial flushing with triggers = rosacea; alcohol (especially red wine) is a classic trigger.
Q030(B)A small unvaccinated minority is protected by vaccinated peers. Herd immunity.
Q031(A)Anti-D immunoglobulin binds fetal Rh(D)+ RBCs in maternal circulation, preventing maternal sensitization.
Q032(D)Acute monoarticular first-MTP arthritis after purine/alcohol load = gout (uric acid = end product of purine degradation).
Q033(A)Motivational interviewing favors open-ended, nonjudgmental questions that elicit the patient's own perspective.
Q034(C)Lymphatic vessels arise from mesoderm (lymphangioblasts budding from venous endothelium).
Q035(B)Chronic hypoxemia → renal EPO release → secondary polycythemia.
Q036(B)Bloody diarrhea → HUS triad (MAHA + thrombocytopenia + AKI) = Shiga-toxin- producing E. Coli O157:H7.
Q037(C)Pressure overload (HTN) → concentric hypertrophy from sarcomeres added in parallel.
Q038(B)"Metabolic activation" of procarcinogens (benzene, PAHs) = Phase I oxidation by cytochrome P450s.
Q039(B)Healthy volunteers + safety/PK = Phase 1.
Q040(A)Glucagon raises glucose only if liver glycogen is available; chronic exercise depletes glycogen stores.
Q041(B)SPIKES protocol. After Setting/Perception/Invitation, the physician should give honest, plain-language Knowledge with a warning shot, not hedge or minimize.
Q042(B)Erythrocytosis + splenomegaly + thrombocytosis in a non-smoker = polycythemia vera, driven by JAK2 V617F.
Q043(E)Olfactory aura + automatisms = uncinate/mesial temporal focus → hippocampus / medial temporal lobe.
Q044(A)Painful bilateral parotid enlargement in a patient with chronic vomiting is sialadenosis from repeated autonomic stimulation of the salivary glands. The symptom drug is a sialag...
Q045(D)Delayed rash (24-48h) after plant contact = urushiol-induced allergic contact dermatitis = Type IV hypersensitivity.
Q046(E)Chronic hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction → pulmonary hypertension → RV hypertrophy → reduced RV diastolic compliance.
Q047(A)Upper-extremity hypertension + lower-extremity hypotension + interscapular murmur = coarctation of the aorta → delayed/diminished femoral pulses (radiofemoral delay).
Q048(A)Hypercalcemia + suppressed PTH + bilateral hilar adenopathy = sarcoidosis → granulomatous 1α-hydroxylase activity in macrophages.
Q049(C)Steatorrhea = fat malabsorption → lipase is the rate-limiting enzyme of fat digestion and the most rapidly destroyed in chronic pancreatitis.
Q050(C)Metronidazole kills invasive trophozoites in tissue but does not eradicate luminal cysts in the colon → relapse and continued shedding. Paromomycin (a luminal amebicide) clears ...
Q051(D)Striated malignant cells in a child's orbit = embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
Q052(E)Skin puncture → rapidly progressive necrotizing soft-tissue infection with sepsis in an immunocompetent adult. Staphylococcus aureus (per key) is the most common skin/wound path...
Q053(C)LMN signs in hands + UMN signs in legs + cape-like sensory loss = central cord syndrome; intrinsic hand muscles are innervated by T1 (ulnar/median).
Q054(D)Extrapulmonary restriction from chest-wall/abdominal mass loading → ↓FVC, ↓TLC, preserved FEV1/FVC ratio, and normal DLCO (lung parenchyma is intact).
Q055(C)Chronic estrogen deficiency → vaginal atrophy → loss of rugae, thinning epithelium, decreased lubrication.
Q056(E)Open-ended, non-judgmental exploration of patient's understanding beats accusatory or closed questions.
Q057(D)Larger n → higher statistical power → lower β → less chance of Type II error (false negative).
Q058(D)Dilation stops at the level where the renal pelvis meets the ureter = ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction.
Q059(E)Disseminated nontuberculous mycobacteria in an otherwise healthy child without HIV = defect in the IL-12 / IFN-γ axis (often IFN-γ receptor).
Q060(G)Recurrent firm mass at a previous surgical site on the upper chest, with dermal type I and III collagen overgrowth extending past the original scar, equals keloid. The cell driv...
Q061(C)Lisinopril during the second trimester → ACE inhibitor fetopathy with oligohydramnios.
Q062(C)Acute, frothy, protein-poor intra-alveolar edema with no inflammation = acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Q063(E)Rifampin is a potent inducer of CYP enzymes (2C9 metabolizes warfarin).
Q064(A)AMD's \#1 modifiable-independent risk factor after smoking is advancing age. Prevalence climbs steeply after 75.
Q065(E)Cytotoxic induction chemotherapy ablates the marrow → absolute neutrophil count falls 7-14 days after dosing, the classic nadir window.
Q066(A)ARR = control risk − treatment risk (simple subtraction of incidence proportions).
Q067(B)Auer rods (azurophilic, needle-shaped MPO crystals) on a blood smear in an older adult = AML.
Q068(D)Tendon xanthomas + extreme LDL + autosomal dominant family pattern = heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia.
Q069(C)Primary monosymptomatic nocturnal enuresis in a young child with normal workup → developmental.
Q070(A)Repeated straining against hard stool in a healthy child → mucosal rectal prolapse.
Q071(D)Among the unaffected offspring of two obligate carriers (Aa × Aa), genotypes are 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Removing the affected aa leaves 2 Aa : 1 AA → 2/3 carrier probability.
Q072(A)Need vasoconstriction without chronotropy → pure α1 agonist (phenylephrine).
Q073(D)Horseshoe kidney = fusion of the inferior poles of the two metanephroi during ascent.
Q074(C)First step is to reinforce disclosure with a neutral, supportive, non-judgmental acknowledgment.
Q075(D)Adipose-driven insulin resistance forces β-cells to oversecrete insulin → fasting hyperinsulinemia precedes hyperglycemia.
Q076(D)Carbohydrate/salt-heavy meal trigger plus post-exercise rest equals HYPOkalemic periodic paralysis. Insulin from carb load drives K+ intracellularly, serum K+ falls, muscle para...
Q077(F)Dilute urine that concentrates with vasopressin = central DI (ADH deficiency, not renal resistance).
Q078(B)"Fried-egg" cells (clear cytoplasm, large central nucleolus) in a young man's testicle = seminoma.
Q079(D)Heavy in-utero alcohol exposure → fetal alcohol syndrome with characteristic facies.
Q080(D)Painless goiter + hyperthyroidism appearing in the postpartum window + no Graves eye signs = postpartum (silent) lymphocytic thyroiditis.
Q081(D)Specificity = 900/1000 = 90%, so FPR = 10%. Non-diseased population ≈ 100,000 − 80 = 99,920. FP ≈ 0.10 × 99,920 ≈ 9992.
Q082(E)Hemineglect (extinction to double simultaneous stimulation) localizes to the non- dominant (right) parietal lobe; left lower quadrantanopia = right upper optic radiation (pariet...
Q083(E)Conotruncal cardiac defect + hypocalcemia + facial dysmorphism = 22q11.2 deletion.
Q084(E)Sawtooth flutter waves in the inferior leads with an irregular ventricular response equals typical atrial flutter, not atrial fibrillation. The reentrant circuit is in the RIGHT...
Q085(D)Oral NSAID-related upper GI bleed → systemic COX-1 inhibition decreasing mucosal prostaglandins.
Q086(A)Normal embryologic development with extrinsic mechanical compression in utero = deformation.
Q087(B)Tracheal deviation away from the injured side = tension pneumothorax on the right.
Q088(D)Acute blood loss → EPO surge → reticulocytosis by day 3-7, peaking around 10 days.
Q089(B)Steatorrhea preferentially depletes fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K). Dry scaly skin (follicular hyperkeratosis) and rash point to vitamin A.
Q090(C)Renal medulla is hypoxic and hyperosmolar, the perfect environment for HbS polymerization and microvascular occlusion.
Q091(C)The histologic hallmark is dense neutrophil infiltration; the chief chemotactic mediator is leukotriene B4.
Q092(B)Acute psychotic symptoms lasting \<1 month following a marked stressor, with prior baseline functioning intact.
Q093(B)Summer + camp outbreak + lymphocyte-predominant CSF with normal glucose = enterovirus (coxsackie, echovirus).
Q094(B)Restrictive pattern with preserved DLCO and reduced diaphragmatic excursion indicates extrapulmonary (neuromuscular/chest wall) restriction, not parenchymal disease.
Q095(C)Primary dysmenorrhea is driven by endometrial prostaglandin (PGF2α) overproduction causing uterine hypercontractility and ischemia. First-line therapy: NSAIDs.
Q096(D)Hypovolemia + hyperosmolar plasma → maximal ADH (vasopressin) signaling at the collecting duct.
Q097(D)Bilateral parotitis in an unvaccinated/under-vaccinated young adult in a dorm setting = mumps virus.
Q098(D)Anti-CTLA-4 (ipilimumab) is an established checkpoint inhibitor for advanced melanoma.
Q099(D)Family members should not serve as medical interpreters because of confidentiality, accuracy, and emotional bias issues. A telephone interpreter is available and meets the stand...
Q100(C)Classic Bordetella pertussis in an unvaccinated infant → treat with a macrolide (azithromycin first-line).
Q101(F)Amphetamines are indirect sympathomimetics that act primarily at the presynaptic terminal.
Q102(E)Tall young man + tearing back pain + new diastolic murmur = type A aortic dissection producing acute aortic regurgitation.
Q103(E)MEPP (quantal size) normal but EPP (number of quanta released) decreased → presynaptic ACh release defect, not postsynaptic.
Q104(C)Hypercalcemia + inappropriately normal/high PTH + low urinary calcium (FE \<1%) = FHH, not primary hyperparathyroidism.
Q105(C)Patient is expressing a values-driven shift; the physician should explore goals of care, not redirect, dismiss, or pathologize.
Q106(C)46,XX with virilization but normal müllerian structures → fetal androgen excess. The classic intrinsic cause is 21-hydroxylase deficiency; the question lists maternal androgen e...
Q107(D)Dermatophyte infection of the feet → first-line oral/topical agent for moccasin/ extensive tinea is terbinafine.
Q108(B)Adduction failure on contralateral gaze with intact convergence = INO; localize by the side of the adducting eye.
Q109(A)Chronic hypertension → arteriolar wall thickening that indents crossing venules.
Q110(D)Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a 2-week-old with elevated GGT and ALP = biliary obstruction → biliary atresia.
Q111(B)Young woman + abdominal bruit + severe secondary HTN = fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries.
Q112(D)In a normal distribution, the mean equals the median. By definition, exactly 50% of all values fall below the mean. No range arithmetic needed. Half the population is below 7500.
Q113(C)Normal ristocetin (vWF-GpIb axis intact) but failed aggregation to physiologic agonists = GpIIb/IIIa defect.
Q114(C)Single mutation explains a large fraction of disease in a geographically/historically isolated population = founder effect.
Q115(B)A pedunculated, ball-valve cardiac mass causing positional syncope is virtually always an atrial myxoma, and \~75-80% arise in the left atrium attached to the fossa ovalis.
Q116(D)Rejection within minutes = hyperacute, mediated by recipient preformed antibodies against donor antigens (ABO/HLA).
Q117(A)Long-term bisphosphonate use → suppressed bone turnover → atypical (subtrochanteric/midshaft) femoral fracture.
Q118(C)Tenderness just distal to the lateral malleolus = anterior talofibular ligament injury, the most commonly sprained ankle ligament, caused by inversion.
Q119(E)Aspirated foreign body in a mainstem bronchus partially obstructs ventilation while perfusion continues → low V/Q (shunt-like) physiology → hypoxemia.

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Master the NBME. One concept at a time.

The NBME doesn't test what you know. It tests how you think under pressure. Most students fail not because they studied the wrong content. They were never taught how to read an NBME question.

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How to use this guide

  • Take the Free 120 timed first. Come here after.
  • For every wrong answer, read the full autopsy. Ask what the vignette would look like if this distractor were correct.
  • For every right answer you guessed, read the Trap Fingerprint. Know why you almost got it wrong.
  • Use Variable Pivot to build conditional thinking. The exact skill NBME rewards.
  • Day Before Sheet is for active recall, not re-reading. Print it.

NBME Trap Taxonomy

Every NBME question has a specific cognitive trap baked in. Once you can name the trap, you defeat it on questions you have never seen before.

Prevalence SwapThe "most common" answer is wrong because one clue rules it out. NBME gives you "most common" as the seductive distractor, then hides the differentiating finding in labs or demographics.
Adjacent DiseaseReal disease, real mechanism, just one feature different. Forces you to know the full discriminating profile of similar conditions, not just their names.
Mechanism ReversalSame pathway, opposite direction. Offers a cause of bleeding when you need clotting. Vasoconstriction when the answer requires vasodilation.
Level ConfusionRight phenomenon, wrong level of the system. Asks downstream and offers an upstream mechanism, or vice versa.
Lab BaitA lab value is given to anchor your attention while the real pivot is a different finding you might skim past.
Temporal BaitCorrect mechanism for the wrong time point in the disease course. Late stage answer when the question describes early presentation.
Scope CreepThe answer addresses a slightly different question than what was asked. "What organ" when the stem asked "what mechanism."
Pharmacology ReversalConfuses agonist with antagonist, inhibitor with inducer, mechanism with side effect. Tests if you know the drug deeply enough to distinguish direction.

Authentication Notes

This guide was systematically verified against the official USMLE Free 120 answer key, then independently fact-checked against current medical literature. Six errors in the original guide were identified and corrected:

  • Q3 (label correction): The original title called this an INO (internuclear ophthalmoplegia). The vignette describes left abduction failure, which is CN VI palsy from a paramedian pontine infarct (Millard-Gubler/Foville). INO is adduction failure from MLF damage. The answer letter was correct, the syndrome label was wrong.
  • Q18 (mechanism correction): The original mechanism section attributed black pigment stones to β-glucuronidase deconjugation. That mechanism actually produces brown pigment stones in biliary infections (Clonorchis, bacterial cholangitis). Black stones in sickle cell come from bilirubin overload precipitating directly with calcium as calcium bilirubinate. The answer letter (E) was correct, but the mechanism taught the wrong biochemistry.
  • Q20 (corrected to A): LH was 15x above normal (3.0 mIU/mL vs less than 0.2 normal), confirming central or gonadotropin-dependent precocious puberty. McCune-Albright requires suppressed LH. The original guide misread elevated LH as suppressed.
  • Q76 (label correction): The original title called this hyperkalemic periodic paralysis. The clinical picture (carbohydrate-heavy meal trigger, treatment with potassium) is HYPOkalemic periodic paralysis. Insulin from a carb load drives K+ intracellularly, serum K+ falls, paralysis follows. Treatment is potassium. The answer letter (D, potassium) was correct, but the descriptor "transient hyperkalemia during attacks" was the reverse of what actually happens.
  • Q104 (distractor autopsies rewritten): The expanded distractor explanations were originally paired with the wrong answer letters. They now correctly correspond to CGRP receptor, calcitonin receptor, PTH receptor, RANK receptor, and Vitamin D receptor. The correct answer (C, calcium-sensing receptor) was not affected.
  • Q112 (corrected to D): In a normal distribution, mean equals median. Exactly 50% of values fall below the mean by definition. The original guide confused "50% below mean" with the "plus or minus 1 SD (68%)" range.

If you find another error, message me. This guide gets better the more eyes are on it.

If this helped

The Free 120 covers 119 questions across every system. The 14-PDF subject bundle is what builds the system-by-system mastery underneath it - mechanism trees, trap-block drills, and the practice questions for each subject. Optional. The Free 120 alone moves your score.

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