Bit · Heme/Onc

AML vs ALL vs CML vs CLL

Four leukemias that split first by acute/chronic (blast burden) and then by lineage (lymphoid/myeloid). The pivot is age + smear finding.

Mechanism

The first split is on clinical tempo and blast count:

The second split is on lineage — lymphoid vs myeloid. Each combination has a signature:

Differentiator Table

AMLALLCMLCLL
Acute or chronicAcuteAcuteChronicChronic
LineageMyeloidLymphoid (B or T)MyeloidLymphoid (mature B)
Typical ageAdults (median ~65)Children (peak 2–5)Adults (40–60)Older adults (>60)
Pathognomonic smearAuer rods, myeloperoxidase +TdT + blastsMassive WBC with all maturation stagesSmudge cells, mature small lymphocytes
Genetic hallmarkt(15;17) APL (M3); t(8;21); inv(16)t(12;21) — good in kids; t(9;22) — poor in adultst(9;22) Philadelphia → BCR-ABLOften del(13q), del(11q), trisomy 12
Bone marrow>20% myeloid blasts>20% lymphoid blastsHypercellular, full spectrum of myeloid maturationMature lymphocyte infiltration
First-line treatmentInduction chemo (7+3); ATRA for APLMulti-agent chemo + CNS prophylaxisImatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor)Often watch-and-wait early; ibrutinib, BR, etc.

The Pivot

Two questions:

  1. Acute or chronic? >20% blasts and marrow failure → acute. Indolent + mature cells → chronic.
  2. Smear finding? Auer rods → AML. TdT+ blasts → ALL. Massive WBC across maturation + Philadelphia → CML. Smudge cells in an older adult → CLL.

Always look for APL specifically — t(15;17), risk of DIC, treat with ATRA. It's the AML subtype NBME loves.

NBME-Style Stem

A 68-year-old man is found on routine CBC to have a WBC of 92,000/mm³, mostly mature-appearing lymphocytes. Peripheral smear shows numerous smudge cells. He is asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Concept Anchor
Acute leukemia is a blast invasion that crashes the marrow; chronic leukemia is a slow expansion of a more mature clone. The smear cell that's not supposed to be there (Auer rods, TdT+ blast, Philadelphia, smudge cell) tells you which one.

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